If there are n numbers of which one and all the others are 1's, then the arithmetic mean of these numbers is less than 1 by (A) n? (B) n (D) 1

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Alitametic mean of the numbers ( =frac{(n-1) times 1+1-frac{1}{n}}{text { . }} ) [ begin{array}{l} =frac{n^{2}-1}{n^{2}} =1-frac{1}{n}= end{array} ] Aillaenc of mean plon ( 1=1-left(1-frac{1}{n^{2}}right) ) [ =frac{1}{n^{2}} ] ( O p+f^{prime} F r-(c) )

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